4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Final

1.A company is developing an Internet store for its website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server?
FTPS
HTTP
HTTPS
WEP2
TFTP


2
Refer to the exhibit. A new branch office has been added to the corporate network and a new router is to be installed to allow branch office users to access the database server at headquarters. How should the serial 0/0/0 interface of the new branch office router be configured to connect to the headquarters router?
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.19 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.25 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.33 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
branch_23(config-if)# ip address 192.168.5.21 255.255.255.240
branch_23(config-if)# no shutdown


3
Which two commands ensure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text when the configuration files are displayed? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
Router(config)# encryption-password all
Router(config)# enable login encrypted
Router(config)# enable password encryption
Router(config)# service password-encryption


4
A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
Select the routing protocol to be configured.
Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface
.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.


5
How does TCP ensure the reliable transfer of data?
If data segments are not received from the source, the destination requests that the segments be resent.
If an acknowledgment of the transmitted segments is not received from the destination in a predetermined amount of the time, the source resends the data.
TCP uses the SYN-ACK portion of the three-way handshake to ensure that all data has been received.
The TCP Protocol Interpreter process verifies the transmitted data at source and destination.


6
A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
port address translation


7
What is the most commonly used exterior routing protocol?
BGP
RIP
OSPF
EIGRP


8
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the router with a name. Which command will the administrator use to configure the router name?
Router# ip hostname Boise
Router# enable hostname Boise
Router(config-line)# name Boise
Router(config)# hostname Boise
Router(config)# ip hostname Boise


9
Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order


10
What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses


11
Which two statements are true about the use of the debug ip rip command on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
The debug ip rip command displays RIP routing activity in real time.
The debug ip rip command can be issued at the user EXEC configuration mode.
The debug ip rip command displays a combination of the information that is displayed by the show ip route and show ip protocols commands.
Because of router processor usage, the debug ip rip command should be used only when necessary.
The debug ip rip command should be used instead of the show ip route command whenever possible.


12
What minimum configurations must be set on a host to allow a request to be sent to http://www.cisco.com/? (Choose four.)
DNS server
WINS server
IP address
NetBIOS
subnet mask
default gateway


13
A Catalyst 2960 switch has been taken out of storage to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch that needs to be repaired. About a minute after the switch has started, the SYST LED on the front of the switch transitions from blinking green to amber. What is the meaning of the amber SYST LED?
The switch has no configuration file in NVRAM.
The switch has failed POST and must be sent for service.
The switch is functioning properly.
The switch is in half-duplex mode.


14
Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cables and symbols is correct?
A - crossover, B - straight-through, C - straight-through
A - crossover, B - rollover, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B -crossover, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B -straight-through, C - straight-through
A - straight-through, B - straight-through, C - crossover
A - rollover, B - straight-through, C - straight-through


15
After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
transport
network
data link
physical


16
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
exchanges datagrams unreliably
is used to send IP error messages
forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
creates a virtual session between end-user applications
carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination


17
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is connected using services from the same ISP. How will the Fohi router dynamically learn routes to the 192.168.16.16/28, 192.168.16.32/28, and 192.168.16.64/28 subnetworks?
with BGP
with a static route
with a directly connected route
with an interior routing protocol


18

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
rollover
console
crossover
straight-through


19
When customers use credit cards to make purchases at a small business, a modem is heard dialing a telephone number to transfer the transaction data to the central office. What type of WAN serial connection is in use?
leased line
packet switched
circuit switched
point-to-point


20
A user reports being unable to access the Internet. The help desk technician employs a bottom-up approach to troubleshooting. The technician first has the user check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall, and then has the user verify that the NIC has a green link light. What will the technician have the user do next?
Enter an IP address into the WWW browser address bar to see if DNS is at fault.
Use traceroute to identify the device along the path to the ISP that may be at fault.
Verify the IP address, subnet, and gateway settings using ipconfig on the PC.
Connect to the user home router to check firewall settings for blocked TCP ports.


21
A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstation B can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)
The router will block the ping request message.
The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.


22
How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
manual configuration of routes
updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base


23
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown? (Choose two.)
The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.
The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.
The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.
The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.
The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.


24
What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
sending echo requests from the source to the destination host to establish the presence of the destination
determining the IP address of the destination host in preparation for data transfer
requesting the destination to transfer a binary file to the source
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer


25
Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
host address
network address
broadcast address
multicast address


26
A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?
misconfigured firewall
bad port on switch or hub
misconfigured IP addressing on the customer’s workstation
wrong DNS server configured on the customer’s workstation
wrong default gateway configured on the customer’s workstation


27
The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was displayed:

C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0
R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1
C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1

From which router was this command executed?
A
B
C
D


28
Refer to the exhibit. Which two sets of commands are required to configure passwords for all management ports on a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
ALSwitch(config)# interface vlan 1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 4
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# line vty 0 15
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login
ALSwitch(config)# enable secret class
ALSwitch(config)# enable password cisco
ALSwitch(config)# interface fa0/1
ALSwitch(config-if)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-if)# no shutdown
ALSwitch(config)# line cons 0
ALSwitch(config-line)# password cisco
ALSwitch(config-line)# login


29
A user reports being able to access the Internet but not being able to download e-mail from the mail server at the ISP. What should the user check on the user workstation?
the POP3 and SMTP server settings in the e-mail application
the patch cable connections at the back of the workstation and at the wall plate
the DHCP settings in the operating system
the IP address, mask, and default gateway values
the NIC drivers


30
Refer to the graphic. Which command will configure a static route on Router A to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0


31
Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
255.255.0.0
255.192.0.0
240.0.0.0
255.0.0.0


32
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the RTA and RTB interfaces. In order to allow hosts that are attached to RTA to reach the server that is attached to RTB, a static route from RTA to the server LAN and a default route from RTB back to RTA need to be configured. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish these tasks on the two routers? (Choose two.)
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.5 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6
RTA(config)# ip route 10.16.10.96 255.255.255.252 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 10.16.10.6 255.255.255.248 10.16.10.6
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.16.10.6


33
How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.
They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they occur.
They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.
They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.


34
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the building in the graphic needs to choose the type of cable best suited to add ServerB to the network. Which cable type is the best choice?
STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic


35
What is used by a routing protocol to determine the best path to include in the routing table?
Convergence time
Default distance
Metric
Type of router


36
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts in the diagram? (Choose two.)
192.168.65.31
192.168.65.32
192.168.65.35
192.168.65.60
192.168.65.63
192.168.65.64


37
Given the network 192.168.25.0 shown in the graphic, which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts in each subnet?
255.255.0.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248


38
Which two protocols allow network devices to report their status and events to a centralized network management device? (Choose two.)
Syslog
Telnet
HTTP
HTTPS
SNMP


39
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.


40
Refer to the exhibit. The graphic shows the output of a command issued on router RTB. According to the output, what two statements are true of router RTB? (Choose two.)
The router is connected to a router named Boise.
Router RTB is connected to a Cisco 1841 router.
Router RTB is directly connected to two other routers.
The IP address of the router interface connected to router RTB is 192.168.2.6.
The RTB router is connected to two Cisco devices by Fast Ethernet links.


41
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route to the ISP network :

RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.6

A ping issued from the ISP is successful to router RTB. However, ping echo request packets arrive at a host that is attached to the Fa0/0 interface of RTB, and the replies do not make it back to the ISP router. What will fix this problem?
The ISP must be configured to forward packets from the 192.168.1.0 network.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.
The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.1.1 address is the next hop address.
The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.


42
A network technician is using a network management station to gather data about the performance of devices and links within the ISP. Which application layer protocol makes this possible?
SNMP
FTP
DHCP
SMTP


43
What are two purposes of DNS? (Choose two.)
to dynamically assign IP addressing information to network hosts
to simplify the administration of host and default gateway addressing on client computers
to assign TCP port numbers to hosts as part of the data transfer process
to resolve human-readable domain names to numeric IP addresses
to replace the static HOSTS file with a more practical dynamic system


44
A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security measure protected the network?
an IDS
an IPS
a host-based firewall
Anti-X software


45
How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
30
256
2046
2048
4094
4096


46
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address


47
A small tire retailer requires a low-cost WAN connection to its headquarters in order to manage its inventory and process customer sales in real time. Which WAN connection type is best suited to its needs?
Sonet
T3
dialup
DSL
leased line


48
The command copy tftp running-config has been entered on the router. What will this command do?
copy the configuration in RAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to RAM
copy the configuration file in NVRAM to a server
copy the configuration file from a server to NVRAM


49
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure the Fa0/0 interface of RTB so that hosts from RTA can connect to the server that is attached to RTB. Which two commands will the administrator use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
RTB# ip address 192.168.102.98 255.255.255.248
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.99 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252
RTB(config)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# no shutdown
RTB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.102.97 255.255.255.252


50
Refer to the exhibit. A NOC technician at an ISP enters the command shown. What are two reasons to use this command? (Choose two.)
to map the path to 192.168.1.7
to test reachability to 192.168.1.7
to locate connectivity problems along the route to 192.168.1.7
to identify the ISPs that interconnect the NOC with the remote host with the address 192.168.1.7
to measure the time that packets take to reach 192.168.1.7 and return to the technician’s workstation

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 9

1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.

• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.


2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer


3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements


4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.


5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
a phased installation
• a green field installation


6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week


7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract


8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.


9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network


10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design


11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software


12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.


13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
wireless NICs
• DHCP server
wireless access points


14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS

• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases


15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware


16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
internal management
• project implementation team


17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.


18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
change order procedures
• problem resolution process

• maintenance contract quotation


19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component


20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 8

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface


2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport


3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.


4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.


5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES

• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA


6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS


7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP


8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded


9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle


10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112


11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.


12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.


13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel

• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance


14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.


15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation


16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances


17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN


18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.

• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.


19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200


20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down


21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.


22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.


23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.


24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM


25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 7

1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.


2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria


3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria


4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer


5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.


6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3


7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.

• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.


8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated


9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief


10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.


11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.


12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma


13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing


14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2


15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.


16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.


17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.


18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics


19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.


20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 6

1. A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.



2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist


3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# auto-summary
R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
R3(config-router)# version 2
R3(config-router)# no auto-summary

• Change the network statement on R3:
R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0


4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network


5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29


6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21


7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2


8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128


9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.


10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0


11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 2

• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1


13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.


14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
RTA(config-if)# exit
RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary

• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0


15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.


16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office
172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.17.1.0/22 sales
172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office
172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.17.48.128/25 sales
172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.5.0/24 sales
172.17.6.0/26 research

• 172.17.2.0/22 head office
172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.17.4.0/26 sales
172.17.4.128/25 research


16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24


17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization

• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries


18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.


19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
QA - 172.16.1.127
Development - 172.16.3.255
Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
QA - 172.16.1.255
Development - 172.16.2.255
Sales - 172.16.32.255


20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248


21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are:
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding.
2. Configure IPv6 addresses.
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.


22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.17.0/24

23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.


24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27


25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 5

1. Which rule should be followed when implementing the security requirements of a network design?
• Always use a common security plan for all business needs.
• As standard practice, lower access restrictions for users if cost is too high.
• Avoid reducing security in order to add additional network capabilities.
• When possible, implement an IDS to protect users from spam.


2. What limitations of the 2960 switch prevent it from providing the services needed in the Distribution layer?
• It is limited to copper connections.
• It does not support QoS.
• It does not support voice VLAN capability.
• It does not support route summarization.


3. When considering converged network designs, it is important to identify appropriate service demands. What is a concern when preparing a network design to fit this environment?
• business data compensation for sensitivity to noise
• location and placement of firewalls
• voice-level quality of service
• security policy requirements


4. Which three design requirements are implemented at the access layer? (Choose three.)
• PoE
• VLANs

• high-density routing
• packet filtering
• rapidly converging routing protocols
• QoS traffic classification and marking


5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding how the ISP router filters traffic?
• Traffic from the 64.100.0.1 address to any destination on the Internet is denied.
• Traffic from any source address entering the ISP router interface s0/0/0 is permitted.
• Only traffic with a source address of 64.100.0.1/30 is allowed into the ISP router interface s0/0/0.
• All traffic from the 64.100.0.0/21 network can access the Internet.
• Traffic from any source address can access the 64.100.0.0/21 network.


6. Which two factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Choose two.)
• use of a wireless controller to manage IP addressing
• type of routing protocols
• location of existing wired clients
• coverage
• position of MDF


7. What are three features of a Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose three.)
• network layer functionality
• redundant power availability
• route summarization
• SNMP
• switch clustering

• inter-VLAN routing


8. A company lists this equipment in their network design:
Two Catalyst 4503 Layer 3 switches
One 5500 security appliance firewall
Two Catalyst 6509 switches
Two lightweight access points
Two Catalyst 2960 switches
Which two types of devices would be appropriate to use at the access layer to provide end-user connectivity? (Choose two.)
• Catalyst 4503 switches
• Cisco 1841 router
• Catalyst 6509 switches
• lightweight access points
• Catalyst 2960 switches



9. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.


10. Which statement applies to a large network with thousands of nodes?
• Each wireless phone is normally in a separate VLAN for security reasons.
• Multiple firewalls exist throughout the access layer for maximum security protection.
• Firewalls cannot be implemented in the multilayer switches and routers.
• Intrusion detection is more likely to be performed by a separate device rather than integrated into a switch or router


11. on campus. The college currently has only wired network device access. Which two devices must be incorporated into the network design to best accommodate roaming for wireless IP phones?(Choose two.)
• voice VLAN capable switch
• autonomous AP
• PoE switch
• Cisco wireless LAN controller
• 2960 switch with 48 100-Mb ports
• lightweight access points


12. What type of WAN service is Frame Relay?
• dedicated
• cell switched
• packet switched
• circuit switched


13. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of having two links connected between the two switches shown?
• provides redundancy in case one of the switches fails
• provides connectivity to Switch1 when the link to the server fails
• provides connectivity when one of the connections between the switches fails
• provides power to the other switch when the other switch has lost AC power


14. What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?
• provides QoS classification and marking
• implements a fast-converging routing protocol
• uses routed interconnections between devices
• aggregates traffic and performs route summarization


15. When applying network security, what security measure should be implemented first?
• securing the network devices
• implementing the firewalls or filters at the enterprise edge
• applying security to resources accessed by internal users
• applying ACLs to the interfaces of the routers in the internal network


16. What characteristic of a network supports high availability?
• VPNs
• high-bandwidth paths to servers
• redundancy
• wireless management


17. What is integrated into a Cisco IP phone to reduce the number of ports needed in the wiring closet?
• hub
• router
• switch
• firewall appliance


18. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
• site survey
• risk assessment
• scalability design
• network protocol analysis


19. Using expandable, modular network devices is a key element of what network design criteria?
• availability
• performance
• scalability
• security


20. What is a primary function of a wireless LAN controller?
• tuning each AP channel for optimal coverage
• providing PoE to the wireless clients
• distributing VLAN information to the wireless clients
• serving as the point of connection between wireless clients and the wired LAN


21. What characteristic in a routing protocol allows it to support the network design criteria for availability?
• CIDR support
• fast convergence
• timed updates
• VLSM suppor


22. A network designer is evaluating the network security implementation for an organization. The designer recommends adding network security devices in front of the server farm, although network security devices have been deployed in the Enterprise Edge for two years. What type of attack can be effectively prevented with this recommendation?
• virus attack
• internal attack
• Internet attack
• phishing attack


23. Refer to the exhibit. The branch office needs constant access to the servers in the enterprise headquarters. Therefore, a backup Frame Relay link is added. A network
• administrator is configuring the routers in the branch office to make sure that when the backup Frame Relay link is used, only the traffic to access the enterprise headquarters is allowed. Which statement is true about the routing configuration on branch office edge routers?
• The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.
• The command ip route 128.107.0.0 255.255.0.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE2.
• The command ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 50 should be configured on BE1.


24. An automobile sales company is establishing a new, small sales showroom in a downtown area. To update the inventory database, the new sales office will need a WAN connection to the headquarters that is located in the suburban area. The WAN connection should be around a 4 Mb/s connection. Which WAN service will provide the most economical approach to meet the requirement?
• DSL
• ATM
• T1 line
• Frame Relay


25. A network designer is selecting a WAN technology for connections between the headquarters of an organization and its branch offices. In this context, what is one advantage of choosing Frame Relay over a T1 line?
• more secure
• flexible bandwidth
• shared media across the link
• efficiency with fixed length packet size

4.0 CCNA 4: Designing and Supporting Computer Networks:Module 4

1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices


2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts

• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval


3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow

• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing


4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.

• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.


6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations


7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.


8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems

• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP


9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented



10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.


11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability


12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment


13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.



14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required


15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.


16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping


17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default


18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue

• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface


19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video


20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.


21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1


22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated


23. What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic


24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence


25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated


26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP


27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC


28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones


29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing

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